Feb 18, 2021
Is this a foolish question?
Is there any number which can be expressed as the product of completely different sets on prime numbers?
I suspect that the answer is No None. But is there a simple proof of that?
Is this a foolish question?
Is there any number which can be expressed as the product of completely different sets on prime numbers?
I suspect that the answer is No None. But is there a simple proof of that?