Is this a foolish question?

Is there any number which can be expressed as the product of completely different sets on prime numbers?

I suspect that the answer is No None. But is there a simple proof of that?

Is this a foolish question?

Is there any number which can be expressed as the product of completely different sets on prime numbers?

I suspect that the answer is No None. But is there a simple proof of that?

Geognosticator