Aaron Tovish
Mar 8, 2024


When doing math, generalize!

What does n^(1/n) infinitely exponatiated equal?

for N=2, it is indeed 2, but (HOLD ON TO YOUR HATS, FOLKS) FOR N=3/2, ITS 3/2! Indeed, for all n>1, it's n. Although, the rate at which it converges ( from below) on n takes longer and longer.

n<1 , the convergence oscillates over and under n and takes longer and longer as n approaches zero.

The only negative number that computes is -1, and you can figure out for yourself what it equals.

Now does that deserve a round of applause or what??!?!?